CVA Sample Questions

CVA Sample Questions & Answers

The income approach, through capitalization and discounted cash flow methods, carries the most weight, alongside financial statement analysis, market and asset-based valuation, cost of capital, marketability and control discounts, with report writing to finish.

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Showing 10 of 20 free samples.

  1. Question 1Advanced

    Market Approach · Guideline Public Company Method Adjustments

    A consultant is using the Guideline Public Company Method to value a private construction firm. The consultant identifies several publicly traded comparables but notes that the private firm has significantly higher financial leverage (Debt/Equity ratio) than the public peers. What is the most appropriate next step for the consultant?

    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: D

    When there is a significant difference in financial leverage, the financial risk profile of the companies differs. The standard procedure is to remove the effect of leverage from the public companies' betas (unlevering), calculate an average or median unlevered beta, and then apply the private company's specific leverage to this unlevered beta (relevering). This adjusts the systematic risk measure for the subject company's unique capital structure, allowing for a more accurate cost of capital calculation.

  2. Question 2Intermediate

    Income Approach · Method Selection for Early-Stage Companies

    An analyst is valuing an early-stage biotechnology company with no current revenue but promising patented technology. The company will require several more years of significant cash burn before potential commercialization. Which valuation approach is generally MOST appropriate for this type of company?

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    Correct answer: D

    For an early-stage company with negative current earnings but significant future potential, the Multi-Period DCF Method is most appropriate. This method allows the analyst to project cash flows through different stages of development (R&D, clinical trials, commercialization) and capture the expected future profitability. The Capitalization of Earnings method is unsuitable due to the lack of stable earnings. The Asset Approach would likely undervalue the company by ignoring the potential of its intangible intellectual property.

  3. Question 3Beginner

    Fundamental Analysis and Financial Statement Adjustments · Normalization Adjustments

    When normalizing a company's income statement, a CVA identifies a one-time, non-recurring gain from the sale of a subsidiary. How should this gain be treated to properly reflect the company's sustainable earning power?

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    Correct answer: A

    Normalization adjustments aim to present a company's financial performance as if non-recurring events had not occurred. A one-time gain from selling a subsidiary is not part of ongoing operations and inflates reported earnings. Therefore, the after-tax impact of this gain must be removed (subtracted) from net income to arrive at a normalized earnings figure that represents sustainable profitability.

  4. Question 4Intermediate

    Asset Approach · Applicability of Adjusted Net Asset Method

    The Adjusted Net Asset Method is most likely to be the primary valuation method for which of the following entities?

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    Correct answer: A

    The Adjusted Net Asset Method is most appropriate for companies whose value is primarily derived from the assets they hold, rather than the earnings they generate. An investment holding company fits this description perfectly, as its value is the sum of the fair market values of its underlying investments (securities, real estate, etc.), less liabilities. Service-based and technology companies' values are typically driven by intangible assets and future earnings, making income or market approaches more suitable.

  5. Question 5Advanced

    Discounts and Premiums · DLOM Empirical Studies

    A CVA is determining the Discount for Lack of Marketability (DLOM) for a minority interest in a stable, dividend-paying private company. The analyst is considering several empirical studies. Which type of study would likely provide the most relevant benchmark for this specific case?

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    Correct answer: A

    Restricted stock studies compare the prices of publicly traded shares of a company that are freely tradable with those that are identical but restricted from sale for a period (e.g., under SEC Rule 144). This price difference is a direct measure of the lack of marketability. For a stable, dividend-paying company, these studies provide a strong benchmark, as the underlying asset is identical, isolating the marketability feature. Pre-IPO studies are more relevant for high-growth companies expecting a liquidity event.

  6. Question 6Advanced

    Discounts and Premiums · Levels of Value

    A valuation firm is engaged to provide an opinion of value for a client's 20% ownership interest in a family business for estate tax purposes. The firm has full access to all company information and is free to apply any and all valuation methods deemed necessary. The partner in charge instructs the team to prepare a comprehensive report detailing their analysis and conclusion.

    Based on NACVA's Professional Standards, this engagement should be classified as a Valuation Engagement. The primary purpose is to establish the fair market value of the 20% interest as of the date of death. The subject company is a successful regional distributor of plumbing supplies with consistent profitability and moderate growth. The remaining 80% is owned by the decedent's siblings, who have no immediate plans to sell the company.

    The valuation team has performed an analysis using the Income Approach (Capitalization of Earnings) and the Market Approach (Guideline Public Company Method). They have also considered the Asset Approach but deemed it inappropriate given the company's nature as a profitable operating entity. The team must now address the characteristics of the ownership interest being valued.

    Which adjustments are necessary to move from a publicly-traded equivalent value (control, marketable level) to the fair market value of the subject 20% interest?

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    Correct answer: A

    The valuation starts from a value indication that is often on a control, marketable basis (or is adjusted to one). To value a 20% interest, two levels of discounts are needed. First, a Discount for Lack of Control (DLOC) is applied to reflect the owner's inability to direct company policy. Second, a Discount for Lack of Marketability (DLOM) is applied because the shares are not publicly traded and cannot be easily converted to cash. Applying a control premium would be incorrect as this is a minority interest.

  7. Question 7Beginner

    Fundamental Analysis and Financial Statement Adjustments · Normalization Adjustments

    A CVA is valuing a company that recently spent a significant, non-capitalized amount on a failed R&D project. For normalization purposes, this expense should be ________ to determine the company's recurring earning power.

    Fill in the blank.

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    Correct answer: A

    A one-time, failed R&D project is a non-recurring expense. To normalize earnings and reflect the ongoing profitability of the business, the after-tax amount of this unusual expense should be added back to the reported net income.

  8. Question 8Intermediate

    Income Approach · Terminal Value Sensitivity

    The terminal value calculation in a DCF analysis often represents a significant portion of the total enterprise value. Which of the following assumptions has the GREATEST impact on the calculated terminal value?

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    Correct answer: B

    In the Gordon Growth Model (Terminal Value = FCF * (1+g) / (WACC-g)), the terminal value is extremely sensitive to the perpetual growth rate (g). A small change in 'g' can lead to a very large change in the terminal value because it directly affects both the numerator and the denominator. While the final year's cash flow and WACC are also important, the perpetual growth rate assumption often has the most leverage on the outcome.

  9. Question 9Intermediate

    Special Purpose Valuations · ESOP Valuation Standards

    When valuing a business for an Employee Stock Ownership Plan (ESOP) transaction, the standard of value that must be used is:

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    Correct answer: D

    The Department of Labor (DOL) and the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) govern ESOPs. These regulations mandate that an ESOP cannot pay more than 'adequate consideration' for the employer's stock, which is defined as Fair Market Value. This is the price at which the property would change hands between a willing buyer and a willing seller, neither being under any compulsion to buy or sell and both having reasonable knowledge of relevant facts.

  10. Question 10IntermediateSelect 2

    Cost of Capital Concepts · Company-Specific Risk Premium

    Which of the following are valid reasons for applying a company-specific risk premium (CSRP) in a build-up model? (Select TWO)

    flowchart TD A[Risk-Free Rate] --> B[Equity Risk Premium]; B --> C[Size Premium]; C --> D{Company-Specific Risk?}; D -- Yes --> E[Add CSRP]; D -- No --> F[Final Cost of Equity]; E --> F;
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answers: B, C

    Geographic concentration and unreliable financial reporting are unsystematic risks specific to the company, justifying a CSRP. Industry cyclicality is a systematic risk, typically captured in beta or an industry risk premium. Being smaller than the smallest decile for size premium data is addressed by the size premium itself, not CSRP, although some practitioners might add a small premium for this.

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